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  • Luis Rosa 5:08 pm on April 18, 2012 Permalink | Reply
    Tags: infallibility, introspection, , memory   

    Is introspection infallible? 

    Yesterday, during Claudio Almeida’s class, Katia Etcheverry presented a paper on the Internalism/Externalism debate. At a certain point of the presentation, we had a very exciting debate about the infallibility of introspection. I think we all have heard of it: it is said that beliefs gathered by means of introspection cannot be false. My belief that there is a tree out there can perfectly be false (maybe I’m hallucinating!), but my belief that I have a tree-like experience just cannot be false. I have no doubt at all about that tree-like experience, because I’m now having that experience, it happens inside me – how can I be wrong about it?

    Maybe I’m simply wrong about this, but I think it is not impossible to find a counter-example to the thesis that introspective beliefs are infallible. More specifically, I suggested the following case would make some trouble:

     

    I am now seeming to remember that p – that is, I’m having the mnemonic experience usually associated with memorial beliefs, and the content of that experience is p. I ‘take a look’ at my mental state, and this introspection process generates the belief that I remember that p (it doesn’t generate the belief that I seem to remember that p, but that I actually remember that p). But, unfortunately, p never happened – it is a case of false memory. Besides, if p is not a fact of the past, then I can’t remember that p (I can only actually remember of what really happened). Therefore, I don’t remember that p. It follows that introspection gives me a false belief in this case.

     

    What do you think about this case? Is it legitimate?

     
    • Katia 12:23 am on April 20, 2012 Permalink | Reply

      Hi Luis, thanks for the exciting opportunity of discussion! First I have to confess: I know near to nothing about the epistemology of memory (let’s wait for Ricardo). But I’ll try to put in a few words how I see the infallibility of introspection beliefs works. When I have a belief that p I accept the proposition p as true. “I believe that p” is a first order belief that can be either true or false in the sense that it can fail to correspond to a fact. But when I introspect I come to believe that “I believe that p”. This introspection belief is infallible, it’s not possible that I could be wrong when “I believe that I believe that p” if I am now occurrently believing that p. There is no room for mistake in that case even if p is false. In your example, if I understand it correctly, the proposition object of introspection would be “I believe that I remember that p”. You said that (and I trust you) to remember is factive, so “I remember that p”, if it’s just the content of some memory of mine, cannot be a belief because beliefs are not factive, they are not facts, they are propositions that can be true or false. So I would have to have a first order belief that “I believe that I remember that p” and then, by introspection, “I believe that I believe that I remember that p”. Voilà! “I believe that I remember that p” can be false, but “I believe that I believe that I remember that p” can’t.
      That’s how I see it. And you Luis? Hello Ricardo?

    • Luis Rosa 2:33 am on April 20, 2012 Permalink | Reply

      Kátia, the proposition object of introspection in the example is “I remember that p”, not “I believe that I remember that p” (not every introspective belief must have a doxastic attitude as the first-order state believed to hold). How that sounds?

      • Ricardo 5:42 pm on April 20, 2012 Permalink | Reply

        Luis and Katia,

        There seems to be a kind of begging the question on the assumption that Luis did in the original case: first, the mere fact of “looking for a mental state” does not follow that there originates a belief that I remember that P even seeming to remember that P. Second, to infer that this process remember that P, in fact, as the epistemological theory of memory requires as a necessary condition for propositional recall, and not merely seem to remember that P is already a priori stipulation, because how could knowing, in advance, if P is the case or not? In the event that you have been, there would be no a false memory, and S to remember the fact that P (sorry the redundancy concept), and not just seem to remember that P, concluding, then, that belief would be given by introspection true, at least in this example. What do you think? I think it is legitimate to defend an introspective fallibility of the “S introspect P, but does not know that P” is appealing for some Gettier case type, where the epistemic luck also applies to purely private mental contents which do not share S any evidence of the same with another cognitive agent.

    • Luis Rosa 5:55 pm on April 20, 2012 Permalink | Reply

      Ricardo, I agree with you that the mere ‘look’ at a mental state does not necessarily generates a belief about that mental state (in this case, a memory state). But I’m not assuming this either. What I need for the example to work is the possibility of a cognitive agent having the belief, generated by introspection, that he remembers that p. What is wrong with it? Why introspection could not generate a belief with the content “I remember that p”?
      I’m curious to know how we could design a Gettier-like counter-example to that infallibility thesis, Ricardo! Let me know your thoughts!

    • Katia 7:29 pm on April 20, 2012 Permalink | Reply

      Luis, you say that the proposition object of introspection would be “I remember that p”, right? Ok, let’s call it “m”, a first order belief. When by introspection S looks inside himself he finds that he is believing that “m”, and “I’m believing that m” is a second order (introspective) belief of S that cannot be false when S is occurrently believing that m, even if m is false. I just don’t see the logical space where, in this particular first person situation, there could be any kind of mistaken. What do you think?
      And Ricardo, could you explain a little more about the Gettier case you think we have here?

    • Luis Rosa 8:56 pm on April 20, 2012 Permalink | Reply

      No Katia, in the example, when by introspection S looks inside himself he doesn’t find himself that he is believing that m – what he finds is m itself! Notice that when I believe that I remember that p, I’m having a belief about a certain state – a memory (which does not hold in the case presented). Not every introspective belief is about beliefs.

      • Ricardo 10:27 pm on April 20, 2012 Permalink | Reply

        Luis and Katia,

        Introspection would generate the content of the belief “I remember that P” if and only if P was the case for the epistemological theory of memory (TEM) if it is false that P, S and P do not remember who did not believe that true and introspectively P recalls that, therefore, could not produce genuinely S introspective belief (true) “I remember that P,” where the truth value of “remember that P” is false. One possible Gettier case counter-example to the thesis that introspection following infallible knowledge of mental states presuppose introspective accidentally justified true belief that there would be a case of propositional knowledge, but to be fallible at the base, the evidence / reason would be misleading , something like “I feel toothache (I have evidence / reason to believe that I have toothache), but I’m not a toothache,” that which would cause the toothache would not the fact of being with toothache, but some other mental event confused and cognitively untraceable … Reading the précis of the book of Sven Bernecker, let a sentence for you (we) think: “Not only can you remember that without P believing that you remember, but you can remember that P without believing that which you remember, namely P”!

        • Luis Rosa 8:36 pm on April 21, 2012 Permalink | Reply

          Not sure I’m following you, Ricardo. Ok, I understand Bernecker’s thesis that I can remember that p without believing that p. But in order for my example to succeed, I just need the possibility of having a introspective belief with the content: “I remember that p”. How else could I justifiably believe that I remember that p, if not using introspection?

    • Katia 5:52 pm on April 21, 2012 Permalink | Reply

      Luis, if I understand it rightly m is a first-order mental state object of introspection. Being so I’ll try to make my point in a more clear way. For this I will use BonJour’s line of argumentation in his 2003, pp. 61-63. There he says “For example, I believe that I am presently having the occurrent belief or thought that foundationalism is more defensible than most philosophers think. This is a meta-belief about the existence of a certain first-order belief: its content is roughly the claim that I believe that foundationalism is more defensible than most philosophers think.” If we translate BonJour’s example in yours we would have this: I believe that I am presently having the occurrent belief or thought that I remember that p. Introspection’s object in this case is the acceptance of the proposition “I remember that p”, that I consider as a belief. In my view the belief I remember that p is a first-order belief, a memorial one in the sense that its source is memory (false one as you put it) not introspection. Introspection gives us the belief that “I am presently having the occurrent belief or thought that I remember that p”. This belief cannot be wrong when I am presently having the occurrent belief or thought that I remember that p. This is so, and I think BonJour put it very nicely: “Because of its non-apperceptive, constituent character, this ‘built-in’ awareness of content, as it might be described, neither requires any justification itself, nor for that matter even admits of any. The first-order belief itself does, of course, require justification: I need a reason, […], for thinking that it is true that foundationalism is more defensible than most philosophers think. But there is no comparable issue of justification that arises for the intrinsic awareness of this content that I have simply by virtue of having the first-order belief in an occurrent, conscious way […]. Indeed, such a non-apperceptive, constituent awareness of content might be said to be strictly infallible […]. Since it is in virtue of this constitutive or ‘built-in’ awareness of content that the belief is the particular belief that it is with that specific content that it has, rather than some other belief or some other sort of state, there is apparently no way in which this awareness of content could be mistaken – simply because there is no independent fact or situation for it to be mistaken about”.
      I think BonJour’s view is in the right track, but it’s indeed a tricky issue!
      And Ricardo, enlight me please: you said that I can introspect memories only if they are true? If this is so when I remeber that p but p was never the case I am just by introspection considering a false proposition? I got it right?

      • Luis Rosa 8:29 pm on April 21, 2012 Permalink | Reply

        no again! In my example we don’t have: I believe that I am presently having the occurrent belief that I remember that p. What we have here is just this: the cognitive agent (in the case, myself, but you can replace me for the variable ‘S’) believes he is remembering that p. Again: it is not a belief about a belief. It is a belief about another cognitive state – a memory (which actually doesn’t hold, and that’s because it is a false belief). Hope I’m making myself clear – thanks for your points, Katia!

        • Luis Rosa 8:31 pm on April 21, 2012 Permalink | Reply

          another way to say the same thing: the belief that I remember that p is the introspective belief I’m talking about.

    • Katia 9:45 pm on April 21, 2012 Permalink | Reply

      Oh Luis… I think we need a little more theory on that, unfortunately it’s not that simple! You see, as I understand it the situation of your proposition “I remember that p” is exactly the same as the proposition “Foundationalism is more…” in BonJour’s example. You do the maths. And maybe it would be useful to look closer BonJour’s ideas about that in the book I quote.

      • Luis Rosa 11:04 pm on April 21, 2012 Permalink | Reply

        Ok, you’re right – what I presented here is just a sketch. Nevertheless, I think that “I remember that p” is a kind of belief I could have by means of introspection, which is not the case for “Foundationalism is more…” or any proposition that does nor refer to mental states. Now, let me make you a set of questions: Do you agree that remembering is a mental state? If remembering is a mental state, when I have a belief about such a state, isn’t it a belief generated by means of introspection?

        • Ricardo 2:53 am on April 23, 2012 Permalink | Reply

          Luis, I’m not sure necessarily conceive of memory as a mental state: Bernecker if you have any reason with your perspective on representational memory, propositional memory there can be no faith, and if a belief is a mental state of “take” something like true or false, the mental attitude, which would also propositional in this case, there would be a belief, but purely representational, in reading what I do Bernecker. Therefore, under this view, the introspection would generate not a belief but rather a representation. There is no other way I believe I remember rightly that P is not through introspection, but introspection does not necessarily cause such a belief in the cognitive agent. Katia, the epistemological theory of memory could not introspect memories with false propositional content (not properly memories: the propositional memory is necessarily factual), but if Sven Bernecker is right (and I contend that he may be at least partially…), non-propositional representational mental states could be remembered, since he is a critic of the standard theory, but would not be known, if memory conceive without belief, justification and knowledge.

    • Katia 1:29 pm on April 23, 2012 Permalink | Reply

      Nice discussion guys! Ok let’s take baby steps now. (and I repeat: Ricardo I need your help when I talk about epistemological problems of memory!) First, remembering is different from mere believing from memory because it’s factive, but its grounds are in memory as a faculty. Being so when I have an episode of thinking about something I remember (an object or an event) and this content (maybe not in a propositional form) is a conscious one then, I have it occurrently in my mind and I consider it and assume a doxastic attitude relatively to it, I may immediately form a belief, if I accept this content as being true. The content of this belief would be the proposition “I remember that p”, and this belief is grounded on the faculty of memory, not in introspection. If I misremember p my belief is false. When I consider introspectively that memorial belief – that is an internal fact – I form an introspective belief about it. Because I am directly in cognitive contact with this internal fact, I am directly acquainted, if you wish, with it, therefore there can be no room for error. An important point here: sure I can by introspection consider mental stuff other than beliefs, but I am not convinced that it is our case here. In order to see why it isn’t, just make the parallel with sensory experience and perceptual beliefs. We usually have perceptual beliefs about our sensory experience and they are not introspective ones because their grounds are in our perceptual faculties. The crucial idea here is the intrinsic awareness of these mental states allowing us to form first order perceptual and memorial beliefs that are justified by perception and memory. And finally, the memorial belief “I remember that p” is false, but the introspective belief I form when I consider it is true and cannot be false.

  • Luis Rosa 11:09 am on March 16, 2012 Permalink | Reply  

    The B.I.V hypothesis – I Can’t stop thinking about it… 

     
  • Luis Rosa 4:48 pm on October 20, 2011 Permalink | Reply
    Tags: , Feldman, intuition, , reasoning   

    That P is intuitive makes P probable? 

    Maybe there is a huge literature out there about intuition (or rational insight) as a source of justification and knowledge – but I didn’t read any paper on it yet. However, I have a promissory note to deal with questions surrounding this cognitive power. The fact is that every time I read a philosopher accepting or rejecting a certain thesis on the basis that it is intuitive or counter-intuitive, I feel uncomfortable. So, I’ll try to explain why that is so. At the same time, I would like to know if the reader of this post feels completely assured that intuition is a good source of justification and knowledge (you can feel comfortable to indicate papers dealing with this question).

    Doubts surrounding intuition can arise when one is in the context of philosophical discourse. In such context, it is usual to present philosophical analyzes by means of propositions with the form:

    x is if, and only if, x is B,

    or:

    is only if is B

    where ‘A’ and ‘B‘ are predicates standing for relations and properties (or sets of relations and/or properties). Generally, it is said that beliefs in such propositions are justified a priori – by means of reasoning from justified premises, or by means of understanding the meanings of ‘A’ and ‘B’, or then by means of rational intuition. It seems it is not as clear how such beliefs are justified by intuition as it is when they are justified by reasoning and linguistic understanding – what is a rational intuition? What epistemic properties it has?

    Nevertheless, philosophers in general make use of intuition to refute and endorse propositions with that form. The theoretical procedure of endorsing a proposition by means of intuition can be represented by the following argument-type:


    (i) It is intuitive that x is only if x is B

    (ii) Therefore, is only if is B


    This argument-type is instantiated by, for example:


    (i’) It is intuitive that, if S knows that P, then S has some degree of certainty with respect to P

    (ii’) therefore, if knows that P, then has some degree of certainty with respect to P


    In a similar way, there is a theoretical procedure in which one refutes a proposition by means of intuition that can be represented by the following argument-type:


    (iii) It is counter-intuitive that x is A when x is B

    (iv) Therefore, x is not A when x is B


    This argument-type is instantiated by, for example:


    (iii’) It is counter-intuitive that S has knowledge when S has a justified belief which is accidentally true

    (iv’) Therefore, S does not have knowledge when S has a justified belief which is accidentally true


    What kind of argument is that authorizing the passage from (i) to (ii) and from (iii) to (iv)? Clearly, the argument is not a valid one: it is possible for the conclusion to be false while the premise is true. It can perfectly be the case that P is intuitive and false, as it can perfectly be the case that P is counter-intuitive and true.

    But there is another option for taking these arguments as good ones (that is, not ill-formed): they are inductively strong (or cogent as Feldman calls it in Reason & Argument). In that case, the thesis is as follows:


    (IN) If it is intuitive that P, then P is probably the case


    And, if (IN) is the case, the following epistemic norm can be derived:


    (ENI) When P is intuitive to S, S is epistemically insured in believing that P


    This epistemic norm does not require S to know/justifiably believe that (IN) is the case – intuition can play its justificatory role even if neither (IN) nor (ENI) are actually accessed by S. The worry about the epistemic status of (IN) is part of the epistemologist job, however, which wants to justify the epistemic norm (ENI). Now, my question is: how can the epistemologist justify (IN)? What reasons we have to believe it is true?

     
    • Nita 8:16 pm on October 20, 2011 Permalink | Reply

      Great post! As it happened before, my spontaneous reactions and comments are confined to a limited understanding of this problem from a moral, epistemological standpoint. As I told you before, the very intriguing thing when dealing with intuition and intuitionism in Rawl’s moral philosophy is that it makes us wonder whether one can at once refuse moral intuitionism (understood as rational intuitionism or moral Platonism as spoused by Clarke, Price, Leibniz, Wolff, Sidgwick and Moore) and embrace constructivism (itself akin to a version of mathematical intuionism). I tend to disagree with most analytic realist readings of this issue, for instance, when Audi regards Kant’s ethics as intuitionist (Mind 2001 article, attached as PDF). It seems that intuitionism is inevitably reducible to moral realism, as one thinks of an immediate take on moral issues, say, that “torture is morally wrong” (not to say that “punching babies is morally wrong” and this kind of self-evident “intuitions” for US students). Precisely because I do believe that both torture and punching babies are morally wrong but these beliefs are not immediately given I tend to take distance from most Anglo-American moral realists, esp. whenever they seem to betray some form of conservative, theological realism (as Professor Plantinga just showed us right here at PUCRS). I am a very liberal animal, so I am quite respectful of these gentlemen’s views but I am not convinced and must be honest to admit that I still keep guard against cryptofundamentalist agendas. Kant seems to be a good watershed because the way one reads the Kantian critique of Platonic, Cartesian intuitionism (which includes theological and metaphysical presuppositions about nature and reality overall) could help us make sense of our own contemporary understanding of these problems. So I am assuming that when you talk about “rational intuition” you mean what Kant called “a priori” or somewhat related to pure reason. For instance, when Kant thinks of space and time as forms of intuition, in that they depend on the “subjective constitution of the mind.” And yet Kant’s conception of intuition accounts also for our everyday usage of the term, say, in perception, when we see that the sky is blue or hear the noise of a car approaching. For Kant, intuition, in this latter sense, is always sensible intuition, as our immediate representation of things or phenomenal beings always refers us to their being in space and time and available to our sense perception without recourse to inference or reason. Moreover, there is no such thing as an intellectual intuition (a Hegelian metaphysical invention of sorts!) For Kant, intuitions are thus objective representations and as such we almost take for granted that the board in our classroom is green, that the door is open or closed etc –most of our daily experiences in dealing with things and nature, in contingent, synthetic a posteriori fashion. The funny thing is that, according to Kant, we can also have pure intutitions, precisely like the non-empirical, immediate representations of space and of time. It seems that in philosophy of math this has been a big, controversial problem whenever we say that “1 + 1 = 2″ stands for an example of intuition. For as we all know, Kant thought that this would rather be an example of a synthetic a priori judgment. That is why intuitionism and constructivism stem from the Kantian take on pure intuition, in a rather different account from traditional, Platonic intuitionism and formalism. Now, when you raise the question “What reasons do we have to believe (anything intuitive) is true?” –a damn good question by the way– it seems that, in moral epistemology, it all depends on what context for giving reasons is meant, say, for the right action or in a metaphysical sense (such as the Platonic realm of Forms or any theory of the Good that claims to be prior to social reality). I understand that you probably don’t want to place your inquiry within social epistemology but since analytic philosophy is committed to holism or avoiding dualisms I thought you might want to respond to this provocation!

      • nythamar 10:28 am on October 21, 2011 Permalink | Reply

        Check this out:

        http://philosophy.ucdavis.edu/mattey/kant/INTUIT.HTM

        Kant Lexicon

        Intuition (Anschauung)

        A320-B377: Intuition is a mode of cognition, which “relates immediately to the object, and is single.”
        A19/B33: “In whatever manner and by whatever means a mode of cognition may relate to objects, intuition is that through which it is in immediate relation to them . . . But intuition takes place only in so far as the object is given to us.”

        To say that intuition relates immediately to the object means that it represents the object without bringing it under a general concept.

        Intuitions represent single objects, particulars, rather than groups of objects. It is general concepts which represent many single things under one heading.

        Kant held that human intuition is sensible. That is, the objects of intuition are “given” to the mind, which is “affected” by them. Sensibility is the faculty of the mind which is affected by objects.

        “Our mode of intuition is dependent upon the existence of the object, and is threfore possible only if the subjects’ faculty of representation is affected by that object. . . . It is derivative (intuitus derivativus), not original (intuitus originarius) , and, therefore not an intellectual intuition” (B72).

        It is conceivable that some minds have an intuition that is intellectual. It would represent objects immediately without being affected by them. Kant held that we do not know whether this is possible, since we do not know how it could occur. The only clue we have is that if there is a God or primordial being, it would have to have original intuition. The reason is that such a being’s cognition must be intuitive, but it could not intuit anything sensibly, as this would be a limitation. (B71, cf. B138)

        • nythamar 10:42 am on October 21, 2011 Permalink | Reply

          Another helpful, thought-provoking link from a doctoral student, Sharon Berry, from Harvard:

          http://www.people.fas.harvard.edu/~seberry/evolution/#_ftnref1

          Evolution, Induction and Rational Intuition

          Intro
          Rational intuition: There are a number of things which can be called rational intuition[1]. Here I simply mean the fairly immediate/spontaneous/off the cuff inclination to say that a certain sentence is true without, say, looking a proof or learning this by testimony. So, for example when you immediately accept or feel that you can directly ‘see’ the truth of a statement or when you go through one example (or fewer) and then are inclined to think, without proof, that all other examples will work out the same way these would all be examples of rational intuition in the sense that I have in mind.

          We take rational intuition to very frequently lead us to true conclusions though it is not infallible.

          There is probably an evolutionary explanation for how such intuitions can so frequently get things right. In this section I will consider some philosophical problems for such an account.

          One note before we get started though:
          Often we have rational intuitions about propositions which can be proved from accepted axioms so one might think that all such intuitions are a matter of subconsciously working out a proof. This doesn’t seem likely for a number of reasons. First off we can have apparently quite similar intuitions about statements like the axiom of choice which can’t be proved from accepted axioms. Secondly accepted axioms often seem intuitive themselves in a very similar way as propositions which can be proved in terms of them – rather than feeling somehow especially trivial. This is, of course, consistent with the idea that the mechanism which produces rational intuitions effectively tries to prove the statement in question from our accepted axioms and gives us the feeling that such statements must be true when such a subconscious proof can be given (in the case of the axioms these proofs will just be proofs of one line). However, this hypothesis that cultural acceptance of certain axioms precedes mathematical intuition seems very unlikely. It is surely more plausible to think that intuition precedes axiom choice: that a number of related statements all seem intuitively likely and we choose some of them as axioms in such a way as to entail as many of the others as possible.
          Thus for these two reasons the fact that many things which are intuitive can be proved should not be taken to mean that mathematical intuition is a matter of unconsciously grasping a proof (though, of course one thing we can have a mathematical intuition about is the claim that something can be proved).

          Impossibility argument

          If scientific induction is completely unreliable in the realm of necessary truths then it is surprising that evolution would lead people to accept true axioms and inference procedures.
          For, if there is a humanly detectable kind of inferential procedure such that the fact that a number of instances of a procedure of this kind don’t lead from truth to falsehood makes it likely that the inference procedure is infact truth preserving, then we will get both a justification for induction about math+logic and an evolutionary explanation for how we could evolve a faculty of rational intuition. Otherwise we get neither.

          I think that we should accept both the evolutionary account of rational intuition and the idea that in some cases induction can justify us in believing necessary logico-mathematical truths.

          A strong Platonist might object that what we evolve is a faculty that literally detects the forms. But if you don’t accept such causal powers then it is hard to see what the sub-personal mechanisms evolved could do to get reliability that conscious induction can’t.

          Here are a few points to soften the blow of accepting that we can have mathematical knowledge by induction

          calculator example
          could learn that everyone in group A qualifies for insurance plan 5 inductively
          obviously some mathematical predicates aren’t very inductable but neither are some empirical ones… all we need is that there is some subset of mathematical claims which humans can distinguish which are inductible
          in some cases we are inclined to use knowledge to mean possession of a canonical proof as distinct from reliable belief: so if you are inclined to say that you cant *know* mathematical truths by scientific induction in the special sense which is normally relevant to mathematical statements this does not entail that induction can’t lead you to reliable true beliefs.

          Specific problems for coming up with an evolutionary story about rationality:

          What is it for a creature to be able to infer from ‘P v Q and ~Q’ to ‘P’ – need to associate these two logically equivalent propositions with different mental states such that some creature could be evolutionarally disadvantaged by not connecting these states.

          [This is a variant of the problem of logical omniscience: it is tempting to think of a creature’s mental states in terms of the set of possible worlds which are actual for all we know.]

          In order to get an evolutionary grip we would need to have separate behavioral states associated with the two necessary beliefs, which there could then be some evolutionary value to evading.

          Suppose:
          Mice can detect vixen urine.
          Mice can detect foxes visually, and go into fox evasion procedure when they do.

          If a mouse smells the vixen urine but doesn’t start the fox evasion procedures we might say that it knows that there is a fox but not that that there is a vixen.

          In this way there could be selection for either
          a) mice with brains that automatically connected these two states
          b) mice with brains that would end up connecting these states if they were frequently enough activated next to each other (i.e. brains that treated these predicates as inductible)

          In this way, if we think that it makes sense to attribute logical abilities to pre-lingusitic animals we can make sense of evolution giving them these linguistic abilities.

          On the other hand if you don’t think it makes sense to attribute logico-mathematical abilities to animals then the story is even easier to tell once language is in place

          Suppose:
          People can recognize vixens by seeing them or by hearing others say vixen
          People can recognize foxes by seeing them or by hearing others say fox, and they have fox hunting/evasion procedures

          There would be survival value to going to get your fox spear directly when someone says vixen rather than waiting for someone to say that is a fox too, or waiting for it to come into sight.

          Since language chances so quickly it’s unlikely that there would be benefit in making a brain that ‘automatically’ believes that vixens are foxes.
          But there would be a benefit to build a brain which is likely to connect these kinds of states (one that treats these states as inductive).
          We would be evolved to have a sense of the ‘right’ kinds of inferential procedures to accept as universally true after relatively few confirmatory experiences, just as we are evolved to have a sense of the ‘right’ kind of generalizations about the empirical world (pots that look like this will crack when fired, treating bees like this will make them aggressive) to believe on the basis of very limited experience.

          In this way our intuition that the pigeon-hole principle is true is like our intuition that you can’t cut a banana with a telephone wire (we are evolved to quickly, subconsciously, make certain kinds of generalizations on the basis of very limited observation)

          The only difference is that in the latter case we can form certain kinds of pictures of mere physical impossibilities but not metaphysical/mathematical impossibilities.

          But these canonical methods of picturing are just formed by a) evolution and b) custom in such a way that everything which is actual/physically possible turns out to be picturable. But there are no further constraints: whether we say that a given description of a physically possible state of affairs is or is not metaphysically possible is just a matter of chance and convention.

    • nythamar 10:23 pm on October 21, 2011 Permalink | Reply

      Once again, let me try to make sense of my take on rational intuition:

      The major problem with moral intuitionism, as Rawls correctly put it, is its taking for granted so-called prima facie moral convictions or beliefs as something self-evident. A moral intuition comes down to believing something irreducibly given, as it were a brute fact, the plain truth or the real thing. A Cartesian genius, G-d or Coca-Cola, for that matter, seem to be all likely to be mistaken for intuitive beliefs and the object of warranted belief. Once again, we must reexamine the grammar of belief and the ontological commitments involved in such metaethical assumptions. In Kantian terms, we must distiguish opining, knowing, and believing (KrV A820/B 848 Canon of Pure Reason section 3). According to our coherentist, Rawlsian-like reading of Kant’s epistemology, the only way to know something is by appealing to beliefs and that which is regarded as being true is that which is consistent with our overall network of beliefs. In Rawlsian-Kantian terms that means that there are no foundational propositions leading to some basic beliefs in order to act morally (once again, think of giving reasons to act morally as a procedural device, say, like the categorical imperative).
      So that accounts for traditional accounts of cognition as “justified true belief” in a much weaker sense (hence, shifting away from robust cognitivism and moral realism) but also for the semantic, ontological implications in a post-Gettier account of lucky guesses, moral luck, luck egalitarianism, and so forth. For Kant the bottom line is that we must make a distinction between theoretical and practical uses of reason, and this what lends to confusion when most believers take for granted that because it seems consistent to hold moral beliefs and believe in G-d that Kant seems to be making a case for a theistic view of moral realism. Kant’s antirealism can be thus placed somewhere between Platonic, moral realism and Humean noncognitivism, just like R.M. Hare and J. Rawls have convincingly argued.

      • Luis Rosa 7:44 pm on October 22, 2011 Permalink | Reply

        Hello Nythamar! You brought lots of points since the first comment, but I think it is noteworthy that the kantian take on intuition is very different from the contemporary epistemologist’s take on it. they are not talking about the same thing. kant is talking about intuition of particulars, objects. the hangout on intuition from the contemporary epistemology point of view is concerned with another kind of object – propositions and beliefs. it seems the intuitions of particulars via sensation is not the same thing as intuition as a source of justification for beliefs in propositions. It is one thing to have an intuition of an object, and another to have an intuition that…, where the ‘…’ is completed by a proposition or declarative sentence. On the same moods, I would say the quotation from Sharon Berry goes straight to the epistemological point that is in question here – so that is the meaning of ‘intuition’ we’re using.
        Now, turning to the epistemological status of beliefs gattered via intuition: there is the possibility for one to believe that (IN) is the case on the basis that, most of the times we have an intuition that P is the case, P is the case. That would be an inductive reasoning giving support to the reliability of intuition – and intuition would be a derivative source of justification. It is believed to be reliable on the basis of reasoning and any other source of justification (examples can be given with the use of perception, testimony and memory confirming the proposition that was the object of intuition and believed to be the case). It follows from this hypothesis that intuition is not a basic source of justification – and it seems to me this result would be unwelcome for some classic apriorists (I owe this point to Alexandre Junges, which answered during a lunch how he would answer the question about the reliability of intuition).

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